Give Rise

sadsac asked:


If it is granted that God is omniscient and omnipotent, why is it logically necessary that God is also omnibenevolent?
The crux of the question concerns the logic of the inference. It isn’t necessary to consider the existence of God.

Given the definitions of omniscience and omnipotence, why does the conjunct of the two definitions imply omnibenevolence as well? Or to put it another way, if the conjunct of omniscience and omnipotence is assumed to be true, why is it difficult to deny the truth of omnibenevolence?

Caffeinated Content